I have a KVM host which has only one NIC and one public IPv4 adress (a.b.c.d/32) and a IPv6 /64 address block.
My plan is to connect to the he KVM host via IPv6 only and bridge the IPv4 into a VM and use it there.
Here my ifcfg-eth0, ifcfg-br0 and vm network adapter setup:
Code: Select all
ifcfg-eth0:
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BRIDGE=br0
ifcfg-br0:
DEVICE=br0
TYPE=Bridge
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
DELAY=0
IPV6ADDR=<ipv6>::1/64
IPV6_AUTOCONF=yes
IPADDR=192.168.254.254 # dummy IPv4 for spice to run properly, does not run on IPv6 only hosts
PREFIX=24
brctl show
bridge name bridge id STP enabled interfaces
br0 8000.764dcc93d98a no eth0
vnet0
virsh dumpxml (network adapter):
<interface type='bridge'>
<mac address='xxx'/>
<source bridge='br0'/>
<target dev='vnet0'/>
<model type='virtio'/>
<alias name='net0'/>
<address type='pci' domain='0x0000' bus='0x00' slot='0x03' function='0x0'/>
</interface>
Does the mac adress of the virtual network device have to be the same as the physical device or must they differ?
What am I doing wrong here?
Many thanks,
Tobias